Now if there was perfection through the Levitical priesthood (for under it hath the people received the law), what further need was there that another priest should arise after the order of Melchizedek, and not be reckoned after the order of Aaron?

Now if it was possible for things to be made complete through the priests of the house of Levi (for the law was given to the people in connection with them), what need was there for another priest who was of the order of Melchizedek and not of the order of Aaron?

Εαν λοιπον η τελειοτης υπηρχε δια Λευιτικης ιερωσυνης· διοτι ο λαος επ' αυτης ελαβε τον νομον· τις χρεια πλεον να εγερθη αλλος ιερευς κατα την ταξιν Μελχισεδεχ, και ουχι να λεγηται κατα την ταξιν Ααρων;

If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?